Hi, I've been reading Farnell's book and I noticed that he sometimes connects a cos object to a phasor. I understand that this allows to align the phases of a group of oscillators, but I'd like to know WHY is this a result from making such connection. I'd be very grateful if anyone can explain this to me or at least point me to a source where I can read about it.

Hey jshg,

Did you mean connect the output of [phasor~] to the [cos~] inlets?

[phasor~] outputs a upwards sawtooth ramp that goes from 0 to 1 and has a frequency set by it's first inlet.

[cos~] outputs 2π*x as a signal, where x is your input signal. (π is meant to be pi but it looks a bit funny in this font )

So for every cycle of [phasor~], the [cos~] object will output a single cycle of a cosine wave.

This is essentially the same as using [osc~], where [phasor~] and [osc~] are set to the same frequency. However, in this way you don't have to worry about the phase because it's driven from only one [phasor~] object.

oh I see, I get it now
yes, that's what I meant
thank you for the quick reply

There's probably a problem with the connection you've just made into your phasor. Try checking your connection and do a trial if you already got the right cycle.